Another one of the things that puzzles me about the Bible is that nowhere does it actually state that the crucifixion of Jesus did more than absolve HIS CONTEMPORARIES of sin.
The churches, with their vested interests, obviously need the crucifixion to relate to all sins and all sinners from that day forward – but does that make sense? Why would God sacrifice His son for sins that have not yet been committed and, at the same time, not introduce some Earthly penalty other than the blood thirsty treatment of both virtuous and sinful people by the churches?
What special absolution did the crucifixion give to churches to enable them to use extreme violence in His name and not suffer eternal damnation?
Looking at the way sin has been used by the churches as their most lucrative income source, it does seem to me that we are being taught incorrectly and that only the contemporaries of Jesus were forgiven and accepted into the presence of God.